Marten / Man In Black question *possible spoilers*
tl;dr - I'm confused by the difference between the man in black and marten / randall flagg. I've just finished 3rd book, so try not to include any details from later books.
Alright, so a while back I read up until the fifth book. I couldn't get a hold of Wolves of the Calla at the time, so I ended up giving up on the series for a bit.
I recently decided to start up again, and have JUST finished The Waste Lands. The reason I started from the start was cause, even though I remembered most of what happened, I wanted to refresh my memory. However, even on my second reading, I'm still iffy on one thing only:
Is the man in black / Walter O'Dim also Marten / Randall Flagg??? (Keep in mind I've only read up to Waste Lands, so if it's something that might spoil, simply say so).
I currently think that the man in black is not Marten, but what makes me confused is that it was Marten who tricked Roland into taking his test early, but I remember in The Gunslinger, when Roland catches up to the man in black (and this is the part I haven't been able to go back and confirm since I lent the book to someone), the man in black mentions something about how HE was the one who did it, to which the Gunslinger replies something like "I ought to kill you right now". The more I try and figure it out, the more confused I get (my memories not too great for these kinds of things).
Is it that Marten was the one who tricked Roland into taking his test, and the man in black was the one who caused the downfall of Gilead. Ugh, now I'm confusing myself more and more. Someone please clarify, and try not to spoil if possible (I already accidently read something that describes the connection between New York and Roland's world (what's Roland's world called, anyhow?), and I'm trying hard to forget it :P)